Title 10
PART 40 APPENDIX A
Constituent or property | Maximum concentration |
---|---|
Milligrams per liter: | |
Arsenic | 0.05 |
Barium | 1.0 |
Cadmium | 0.01 |
Chromium | 0.05 |
Lead | 0.05 |
Mercury | 0.002 |
Selenium | 0.01 |
Silver | 0.05 |
Endrin (1,2,3,4,10,10-hexachloro-1,7 -expoxy-1,4,4a,5, 6,7,8,9a-octahydro-1, 4-endo, endo-5,8-dimethano naphthalene) | 0.0002 |
Lindane (1,2,3,4,5,6-hexachlorocyclohexane, gamma isomer) | 0.004 |
Methoxychlor (1,1,1-Trichloro-2,2-bis (p-methoxyphenylethane) | 0.1 |
Toxaphene (C10 H10 C16, Technical chlorinated camphene, 67-69 percent chlorine) | 0.005 |
2,4-D (2,4-Dichlorophenoxyacetic acid) | 0.1 |
2,4,5-TP Silvex (2,4,5-Trichlorophenoxypropionic acid) | 0.01 |
Picocuries per liter: | |
Combined radium-226 and radium-228 | 5 |
Gross alpha - particle activity (excluding radon and uranium when producing uranium byproduct material or radon and thorium when producing thorium byproduct material) | 15 |
5D - If the groundwater protection standards established under paragraph 5B(1) of this criterion are exceeded at a licensed site, a corrective action program must be put into operation as soon as is practicable, and in no event later than eighteen (18) months after the Commission finds that the standards have been exceeded. The licensee shall submit the proposed corrective action program and supporting rationale for Commission approval prior to putting the program into operation, unless otherwise directed by the Commission. The objective of the program is to return hazardous constituent concentration levels in groundwater to the concentration limits set as standards. The licensee's proposed program must address removing the hazardous constituents that have entered the groundwater at the point of compliance or treating them in place. The program must also address removing or treating in place any hazardous constituents that exceed concentration limits in groundwater between the point of compliance and the downgradient facility property boundary. The licensee shall continue corrective action measures to the extent necessary to achieve and maintain compliance with the groundwater protection standard. The Commission will determine when the licensee may terminate corrective action measures based on data from the groundwater monitoring program and other information that provide reasonable assurance that the groundwater protection standard will not be exceeded.
5E - In developing and conducting groundwater protection programs, applicants and licensees shall also consider the following:
(1) Installation of bottom liners (Where synthetic liners are used, a leakage detection system must be installed immediately below the liner to ensure major failures are detected if they occur. This is in addition to the groundwater monitoring program conducted as provided in Criterion 7. Where clay liners are proposed or relatively thin, in-situ clay soils are to be relied upon for seepage control, tests must be conducted with representative tailings solutions and clay materials to confirm that no significant deterioration of permeability or stability properties will occur with continuous exposure of clay to tailings solutions. Tests must be run for a sufficient period of time to reveal any effects if they are going to occur (in some cases deterioration has been observed to occur rather rapidly after about nine months of exposure)).
(2) Mill process designs which provide the maximum practicable recycle of solutions and conservation of water to reduce the net input of liquid to the tailings impoundment.
(3) Dewatering of tailings by process devices and/or in-situ drainage systems (At new sites, tailings must be dewatered by a drainage system installed at the bottom of the impoundment to lower the phreatic surface and reduce the driving head of seepage, unless tests show tailings are not amenable to such a system. Where in-situ dewatering is to be conducted, the impoundment bottom must be graded to assure that the drains are at a low point. The drains must be protected by suitable filter materials to assure that drains remain free running. The drainage system must also be adequately sized to assure good drainage).
(4) Neutralization to promote immobilization of hazardous constituents.
5F - Where groundwater impacts are occurring at an existing site due to seepage, action must be taken to alleviate conditions that lead to excessive seepage impacts and restore groundwater quality. The specific seepage control and groundwater protection method, or combination of methods, to be used must be worked out on a site-specific basis. Technical specifications must be prepared to control installation of seepage control systems. A quality assurance, testing, and inspection program, which includes supervision by a qualified engineer or scientist, must be established to assure the specifications are met.
5G - In support of a tailings disposal system proposal, the applicant/operator shall supply information concerning the following:
(1) The chemical and radioactive characteristics of the waste solutions.
(2) The characteristics of the underlying soil and geologic formations particularly as they will control transport of contaminants and solutions. This includes detailed information concerning extent, thickness, uniformity, shape, and orientation of underlying strata. Hydraulic gradients and conductivities of the various formations must be determined. This information must be gathered from borings and field survey methods taken within the proposed impoundment area and in surrounding areas where contaminants might migrate to groundwater. The information gathered on boreholes must include both geologic and geophysical logs in sufficient number and degree of sophistication to allow determining significant discontinuities, fractures, and channeled deposits of high hydraulic conductivity. If field survey methods are used, they should be in addition to and calibrated with borehole logging. Hydrologic parameters such as permeability may not be determined on the basis of laboratory analysis of samples alone; a sufficient amount of field testing (e.g., pump tests) must be conducted to assure actual field properties are adequately understood. Testing must be conducted to allow estimating chemi-sorption attenuation properties of underlying soil and rock.
(3) Location, extent, quality, capacity and current uses of any groundwater at and near the site.
5H - Steps must be taken during stockpiling of ore to minimize penetration of radionuclides into underlying soils; suitable methods include lining and/or compaction of ore storage areas.
Criterion 6 - (1) In disposing of waste byproduct material, licensees shall place an earthen cover (or approved alternative) over tailings or wastes at the end of milling operations and shall close the waste disposal area in accordance with a design 1 which provides reasonable assurance of control of radiological hazards to (i) be effective for 1,000 years, to the extent reasonably achievable, and, in any case, for at least 200 years, and (ii) limit releases of radon-222 from uranium byproduct materials, and radon-220 from thorium byproduct materials, to the atmosphere so as not to exceed an average 2 release rate of 20 picocuries per square meter per second (pCi/m 2 s) to the extent practicable throughout the effective design life determined pursuant to (1)(i) of this Criterion. In computing required tailings cover thicknesses, moisture in soils in excess of amounts found normally in similar soils in similar circumstances may not be considered. Direct gamma exposure from the tailings or wastes should be reduced to background levels. The effects of any thin synthetic layer may not be taken into account in determining the calculated radon exhalation level. If non-soil materials are proposed as cover materials, it must be demonstrated that these materials will not crack or degrade by differential settlement, weathering, or other mechanism, over long-term intervals.
1 In the case of thorium byproduct materials, the standard applies only to design. Monitoring for radon emissions from thorium byproduct materials after installation of an appropriately designed cover is not required.
2 This average applies to the entire surface of each disposal area over a period of a least one year, but a period short compared to 100 years. Radon will come from both byproduct materials and from covering materials. Radon emissions from covering materials should be estimated as part of developing a closure plan for each site. The standard, however, applies only to emissions from byproduct materials to the atmosphere.
(2) As soon as reasonably achievable after emplacement of the final cover to limit releases of radon-222 from uranium byproduct material and prior to placement of erosion protection barriers or other features necessary for long-term control of the tailings, the licensee shall verify through appropriate testing and analysis that the design and construction of the final radon barrier is effective in limiting releases of radon-222 to a level not exceeding 20 pCi/m 2s averaged over the entire pile or impoundment using the procedures described in 40 CFR part 61, appendix B, Method 115, or another method of verification approved by the Commission as being at least as effective in demonstrating the effectiveness of the final radon barrier.
(3) When phased emplacement of the final radon barrier is included in the applicable reclamation plan, the verification of radon-222 release rates required in paragraph (2) of this criterion must be conducted for each portion of the pile or impoundment as the final radon barrier for that portion is emplaced.
(4) Within ninety days of the completion of all testing and analysis relevant to the required verification in paragraphs (2) and (3) of this criterion, the uranium mill licensee shall report to the Commission the results detailing the actions taken to verify that levels of release of radon-222 do not exceed 20 pCi/m 2s when averaged over the entire pile or impoundment. The licensee shall maintain records until termination of the license documenting the source of input parameters including the results of all measurements on which they are based, the calculations and/or analytical methods used to derive values for input parameters, and the procedure used to determine compliance. These records shall be kept in a form suitable for transfer to the custodial agency at the time of transfer of the site to DOE or a State for long-term care if requested.
(5) Near surface cover materials (i.e., within the top three meters) may not include waste or rock that contains elevated levels of radium; soils used for near surface cover must be essentially the same, as far as radioactivity is concerned, as that of surrounding surface soils. This is to ensure that surface radon exhalation is not significantly above background because of the cover material itself.
(6) The design requirements in this criterion for longevity and control of radon releases apply to any portion of a licensed and/or disposal site unless such portion contains a concentration of radium in land, averaged over areas of 100 square meters, which, as a result of byproduct material, does not exceed the background level by more than: (i) 5 picocuries per gram (pCi/g) of radium-226, or, in the case of thorium byproduct material, radium-228, averaged over the first 15 centimeters (cm) below the surface, and (ii) 15 pCi/g of radium-226, or, in the case of thorium byproduct material, radium-228, averaged over 15-cm thick layers more than 15 cm below the surface.
Byproduct material containing concentrations of radionuclides other than radium in soil, and surface activity on remaining structures, must not result in a total effective dose equivalent (TEDE) exceeding the dose from cleanup of radium contaminated soil to the above standard (benchmark dose), and must be at levels which are as low as is reasonably achievable. If more than one residual radionuclide is present in the same 100-square-meter area, the sum of the ratios for each radionuclide of concentration present to the concentration limit will not exceed “1” (unity). A calculation of the potential peak annual TEDE within 1000 years to the average member of the critical group that would result from applying the radium standard (not including radon) on the site must be submitted for approval. The use of decommissioning plans with benchmark doses which exceed 100 mrem/yr, before application of ALARA, requires the approval of the Commission after consideration of the recommendation of the NRC staff. This requirement for dose criteria does not apply to sites that have decommissioning plans for soil and structures approved before June 11, 1999.
(7) The licensee shall also address the nonradiological hazards associated with the wastes in planning and implementing closure. The licensee shall ensure that disposal areas are closed in a manner that minimizes the need for further maintenance. To the extent necessary to prevent threats to human health and the environment, the licensee shall control, minimize, or eliminate post-closure escape of nonradiological hazardous constituents, leachate, contaminated rainwater, or waste decomposition products to the ground or surface waters or to the atmosphere.
Criterion 6A - (1) For impoundments containing uranium byproduct materials, the final radon barrier must be completed as expeditiously as practicable considering technological feasibility after the pile or impoundment ceases operation in accordance with a written, Commission-approved reclamation plan. (The term as expeditiously as practicable considering technological feasibility as specifically defined in the Introduction of this appendix includes factors beyond the control of the licensee.) Deadlines for completion of the final radon barrier and, if applicable, the following interim milestones must be established as a condition of the individual license: windblown tailings retrieval and placement on the pile and interim stabilization (including dewatering or the removal of freestanding liquids and recontouring). The placement of erosion protection barriers or other features necessary for long-term control of the tailings must also be completed in a timely manner in accordance with a written, Commission-approved reclamation plan.
(2) The Commission may approve a licensee's request to extend the time for performance of milestones related to emplacement of the final radon barrier if, after providing an opportunity for public participation, the Commission finds that the licensee has adequately demonstrated in the manner required in paragraph (2) of Criterion 6 that releases of radon-222 do not exceed an average of 20 pCi/m 2s. If the delay is approved on the basis that the radon releases do not exceed 20 pCi/m 2s, a verification of radon levels, as required by paragraph (2) of Criterion 6, must be made annually during the period of delay. In addition, once the Commission has established the date in the reclamation plan for the milestone for completion of the final radon barrier, the Commission may extend that date based on cost if, after providing an opportunity for public participation, the Commission finds that the licensee is making good faith efforts to emplace the final radon barrier, the delay is consistent with the definition of available technology, and the radon releases caused by the delay will not result in a significant incremental risk to the public health.
(3) The Commission may authorize by license amendment, upon licensee request, a portion of the impoundment to accept uranium byproduct material or such materials that are similar in physical, chemical, and radiological characteristics to the uranium mill tailings and associated wastes already in the pile or impoundment, from other sources, during the closure process. No such authorization will be made if it results in a delay or impediment to emplacement of the final radon barrier over the remainder of the impoundment in a manner that will achieve levels of radon-222 releases not exceeding 20 pCi/m 2s averaged over the entire impoundment. The verification required in paragraph (2) of Criterion 6 may be completed with a portion of the impoundment being used for further disposal if the Commission makes a final finding that the impoundment will continue to achieve a level of radon-222 releases not exceeding 20 pCi/m 2 s averaged over the entire impoundment. In this case, after the final radon barrier is complete except for the continuing disposal area, (a) only byproduct material will be authorized for disposal, (b) the disposal will be limited to the specified existing disposal area, and (c) this authorization will only be made after providing opportunity for public participation. Reclamation of the disposal area, as appropriate, must be completed in a timely manner after disposal operations cease in accordance with paragraph (1) of Criterion 6; however, these actions are not required to be complete as part of meeting the deadline for final radon barrier construction.
Criterion 7 - At least one full year prior to any major site construction, a preoperational monitoring program must be conducted to provide complete baseline data on a milling site and its environs. Throughout the construction and operating phases of the mill, an operational monitoring program must be conducted to measure or evaluate compliance with applicable standards and regulations; to evaluate performance of control systems and procedures; to evaluate environmental impacts of operation; and to detect potential long-term effects.
7A - The licensee shall establish a detection monitoring program needed for the Commission to set the site-specific groundwater protection standards in paragraph 5B(1) of this appendix. For all monitoring under this paragraph the licensee or applicant will propose for Commission approval as license conditions which constituents are to be monitored on a site specific basis. A detection monitoring program has two purposes. The initial purpose of the program is to detect leakage of hazardous constituents from the disposal area so that the need to set groundwater protection standards is monitored. If leakage is detected, the second purpose of the program is to generate data and information needed for the Commission to establish the standards under Criterion 5B. The data and information must provide a sufficient basis to identify those hazardous constituents which require concentration limit standards and to enable the Commission to set the limits for those constituents and the compliance period. They may also need to provide the basis for adjustments to the point of compliance. For licenses in effect September 30, 1983, the detection monitoring programs must have been in place by October 1, 1984. For licenses issued after September 30, 1983, the detection monitoring programs must be in place when specified by the Commission in orders or license conditions. Once groundwater protection standards have been established pursuant to paragraph 5B(1), the licensee shall establish and implement a compliance monitoring program. The purpose of the compliance monitoring program is to determine that the hazardous constituent concentrations in groundwater continue to comply with the standards set by the Commission. In conjunction with a corrective action program, the licensee shall establish and implement a corrective action monitoring program. The purpose of the corrective action monitoring program is to demonstrate the effectiveness of the corrective actions. Any monitoring program required by this paragraph may be based on existing monitoring programs to the extent the existing programs can meet the stated objective for the program.
Criterion 8 - Milling operations must be conducted so that all airborne effluent releases are reduced to levels as low as is reasonably achievable. The primary means of accomplishing this must be by means of emission controls. Institutional controls, such as extending the site boundary and exclusion area, may be employed to ensure that offsite exposure limits are met, but only after all practicable measures have been taken to control emissions at the source. Notwithstanding the existence of individual dose standards, strict control of emissions is necessary to assure that population exposures are reduced to the maximum extent reasonably achievable and to avoid site contamination. The greatest potential sources of offsite radiation exposure (aside from radon exposure) are dusting from dry surfaces of the tailings disposal area not covered by tailings solution and emissions from yellowcake drying and packaging operations. During operations and prior to closure, radiation doses from radon emissions from surface impoundments of uranium or thorium byproduct materials must be kept as low as is reasonably achievable.
Checks must be made and logged hourly of all parameters (e.g., differential pressures and scrubber water flow rates) that determine the efficiency of yellowcake stack emission control equipment operation. The licensee shall retain each log as a record for three years after the last entry in the log is made. It must be determined whether or not conditions are within a range prescribed to ensure that the equipment is operating consistently near peak efficiency; corrective action must be taken when performance is outside of prescribed ranges. Effluent control devices must be operative at all times during drying and packaging operations and whenever air is exhausting from the yellowcake stack. Drying and packaging operations must terminate when controls are inoperative. When checks indicate the equipment is not operating within the range prescribed for peak efficiency, actions must be taken to restore parameters to the prescribed range. When this cannot be done without shutdown and repairs, drying and packaging operations must cease as soon as practicable. Operations may not be restarted after cessation due to off-normal performance until needed corrective actions have been identified and implemented. All these cessations, corrective actions, and restarts must be reported to the appropriate NRC regional office as indicated in Criterion 8A, in writing, within ten days of the subsequent restart.
To control dusting from tailings, that portion not covered by standing liquids must be wetted or chemically stabilized to prevent or minimize blowing and dusting to the maximum extent reasonably achievable. This requirement may be relaxed if tailings are effectively sheltered from wind, such as may be the case where they are disposed of below grade and the tailings surface is not exposed to wind. Consideration must be given in planning tailings disposal programs to methods which would allow phased covering and reclamation of tailings impoundments because this will help in controlling particulate and radon emissions during operation. To control dusting from diffuse sources, such as tailings and ore pads where automatic controls do not apply, operators shall develop written operating procedures specifying the methods of control which will be utilized.
Milling operations producing or involving thorium byproduct material must be conducted in such a manner as to provide reasonable assurance that the annual dose equivalent does not exceed 25 millirems to the whole body, 75 millirems to the thyroid, and 25 millirems to any other organ of any member of the public as a result of exposures to the planned discharge of radioactive materials, radon-220 and its daughters excepted, to the general environment.
Uranium and thorium byproduct materials must be managed so as to conform to the applicable provisions of title 40 of the Code of Federal Regulations, part 440, “Ore Mining and Dressing Point Source Category: Effluent Limitations Guidelines and New Source Performance Standards, subpart C, Uranium, Radium, and Vanadium Ores Subcategory,” as codified on January 1, 1983.
Criterion 8A - Daily inspections of tailings or waste retention systems must be conducted by a qualified engineer or scientist and documented. The licensee shall retain the documentation for each daily inspection as a record for three years after the documentation is made. The appropriate NRC regional office as indicated in appendix D to 10 CFR part 20 of this chapter, or the Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001, must be immediately notified of any failure in a tailings or waste retention system that results in a release of tailings or waste into unrestricted areas, or of any unusual conditions (conditions not contemplated in the design of the retention system) that if not corrected could indicate the potential or lead to failure of the system and result in a release of tailings or waste into unrestricted areas.
II. Financial CriteriaCriterion 9 - (a) Financial surety arrangements must be established by each mill operator before the commencement of operations to assure that sufficient funds will be available to carry out the decontamination and decommissioning of the mill and site and for the reclamation of any tailings or waste disposal areas. The amount of funds to be ensured by such surety arrangements must be based on Commission-approved cost estimates in a Commission-approved plan, or a proposed revision to the plan submitted to the Commission for approval, if the proposed revision contains a higher cost estimate, for:
(1) Decontamination and decommissioning of mill buildings and the milling site to levels which allow unrestricted use of these areas upon decommissioning, and
(2) The reclamation of tailings and/or waste areas in accordance with technical criteria delineated in Section I of this appendix.
(b) Each cost estimate must contain -
(1) A detailed cost estimate for decontamination, decommissioning, and reclamation, in an amount reflecting:
(i) The cost of an independent contractor to perform the decontamination, decommissioning and reclamation activities; and
(ii) An adequate contingency factor;
(2) An estimate of the amount of radioactive contamination in onsite subsurface material;
(3) Identification of and justification for using the key assumptions contained in the DCE; and
(4) A description of the method of assuring funds for decontamination, decommissioning, and reclamation.
(c) The licensee shall submit this plan in conjunction with an environmental report that addresses the expected environmental impacts of the milling operation, decommissioning and tailings reclamation, and evaluates alternatives for mitigating these impacts. The plan must include a signed original of the financial instrument obtained to satisfy the surety arrangement requirements of this criterion (unless a previously submitted and approved financial instrument continues to cover the cost estimate for decommissioning). The surety arrangement must also cover the cost estimate and the payment of the charge for long-term surveillance and control required by Criterion 10 of this section.
(d) To avoid unnecessary duplication and expense, the Commission may accept financial sureties that have been consolidated with financial or surety arrangements established to meet requirements of other Federal or state agencies and/or local governing bodies for decommissioning, decontamination, reclamation, and long-term site surveillance and control, provided such arrangements are considered adequate to satisfy these requirements and that the portion of the surety which covers the decommissioning and reclamation of the mill, mill tailings site and associated areas, and the long-term funding charge is clearly identified and committed for use in accomplishing these activities.
(e) The licensee's surety mechanism will be reviewed annually by the Commission to assure, that sufficient funds would be available for completion of the reclamation plan if the work had to be performed by an independent contractor.
(f) The amount of surety liability should be adjusted to recognize any increases or decreases resulting from:
(1) Inflation;
(2) Changes in engineering plans;
(3) Activities performed;
(4) Spills, leakage or migration of radioactive material producing additional contamination in onsite subsurface material that must be remediated to meet applicable remediation criteria;
(5) Waste inventory increasing above the amount previously estimated;
(6) Waste disposal costs increasing above the amount previously estimated;
(7) Facility modifications;
(8) Changes in authorized possession limits;
(9) Actual remediation costs that exceed the previous cost estimate;
(10) Onsite disposal; and
(11) Any other conditions affecting costs.
(g) Regardless of whether reclamation is phased through the life of the operation or takes place at the end of operations, an appropriate portion of surety liability must be retained until final compliance with the reclamation plan is determined.
(h) The appropriate portion of surety liability retained until final compliance with the reclamation plan is determined will be at least sufficient at all times to cover the costs of decommissioning and reclamation of the areas that are expected to be disturbed before the next license renewal. The term of the surety mechanism must be open ended, unless it can be demonstrated that another arrangement would provide an equivalent level of assurance. This assurance would be provided with a surety instrument which is written for a specified time (e.g., 5 years) and which must be automatically renewed unless the surety notifies the beneficiary (the Commission or the State regulatory agency) and the principal (the licensee) with reasonable time (e.g., 90 days) before the renewal date of their intention not to renew. In such a situation the surety requirement still exists and the licensee would be required to submit an acceptable replacement surety within a brief time to allow at least 60 days for the regulatory agency to collect.
(i) Proof of forfeiture must not be necessary to collect the surety. In the event that the licensee can not provide an acceptable replacement surety within the required time, the surety shall be automatically collected before its expiration. The surety instrument must provide for collection of the full face amount immediately on demand without reduction for any reason, except for trustee fees and expenses provided for in a trust agreement, and that the surety will not refuse to make full payment. The conditions described previously would have to be clearly stated on any surety instrument which is not open-ended, and must be agreed to by all parties. Financial surety arrangements generally acceptable to the Commission are:
(1) Trust funds;
(2) Surety bonds;
(3) Irrevocable letters of credit; and
(4) Combinations of the financial surety arrangements or other types of arrangements as may be approved by the Commission. If a trust is not used, then a standby trust must be set up to receive funds in the event the Commission or State regulatory agency exercises its right to collect the surety. The surety arrangement and the surety or trustee, as applicable, must be acceptable to the Commission. Self insurance, or any arrangement which essentially constitutes self insurance (e.g., a contract with a State or Federal agency), will not satisfy the surety requirement because this provides no additional assurance other than that which already exists through license requirements.
Criterion 10 - A minimum charge of $250,000 (1978 dollars) to cover the costs of long-term surveillance must be paid by each mill operator to the general treasury of the United States or to an appropriate State agency prior to the termination of a uranium or thorium mill license.
If site surveillance or control requirements at a particular site are determined, on the basis of a site-specific evaluation, to be significantly greater than those specified in Criterion 12 (e.g., if fencing is determined to be necessary), variance in funding requirements may be specified by the Commission. In any case, the total charge to cover the costs of long-term surveillance must be such that, with an assumed 1 percent annual real interest rate, the collected funds will yield interest in an amount sufficient to cover the annual costs of site surveillance. The total charge will be adjusted annually prior to actual payment to recognize inflation. The inflation rate to be used is that indicated by the change in the Consumer Price Index published by the U.S. Department of Labor, Bureau of Labor Statistics.
III. Site and Byproduct Material OwnershipCriterion 11 - A. These criteria relating to ownership of tailings and their disposal sites become effective on November 8, 1981, and apply to all licenses terminated, issued, or renewed after that date.
B. Any uranium or thorium milling license or tailings license must contain such terms and conditions as the Commission determines necessary to assure that prior to termination of the license, the licensee will comply with ownership requirements of this criterion for sites used for tailings disposal.
C. Title to the byproduct material licensed under this part and land, including any interests therein (other than land owned by the United States or by a State) which is used for the disposal of any such byproduct material, or is essential to ensure the long term stability of such disposal site, must be transferred to the United States or the State in which such land is located, at the option of such State. In view of the fact that physical isolation must be the primary means of long-term control, and Government land ownership is a desirable supplementary measure, ownership of certain severable subsurface interests (for example, mineral rights) may be determined to be unnecessary to protect the public health and safety and the environment. In any case, however, the applicant/operator must demonstrate a serious effort to obtain such subsurface rights, and must, in the event that certain rights cannot be obtained, provide notification in local public land records of the fact that the land is being used for the disposal of radioactive material and is subject to either an NRC general or specific license prohibiting the disruption and disturbance of the tailings. In some rare cases, such as may occur with deep burial where no ongoing site surveillance will be required, surface land ownership transfer requirements may be waived. For licenses issued before November 8, 1981, the Commission may take into account the status of the ownership of such land, and interests therein, and the ability of a licensee to transfer title and custody thereof to the United States or a State.
D. If the Commission subsequent to title transfer determines that use of the surface or subsurface estates, or both, of the land transferred to the United States or to a State will not endanger the public health, safety, welfare, or environment, the Commission may permit the use of the surface or subsurface estates, or both, of such land in a manner consistent with the provisions provided in these criteria. If the Commission permits such use of such land, it will provide the person who transferred such land with the right of first refusal with respect to such use of such land.
E. Material and land transferred to the United States or a State in accordance with this Criterion must be transferred without cost to the United States or a State other than administrative and legal costs incurred in carrying out such transfer.
F. The provisions of this part respecting transfer of title and custody to land and tailings and wastes do not apply in the case of lands held in trust by the United States for any Indian Tribe or lands owned by such Indian Tribe subject to a restriction against alienation imposed by the United States. In the case of such lands which are used for the disposal of byproduct material, as defined in this part, the licensee shall enter into arrangements with the Commission as may be appropriate to assure the long-term surveillance of such lands by the United States.
IV. Long-Term Site SurveillanceCriterion 12 - The final disposition of tailings, residual radioactive material, or wastes at milling sites should be such that ongoing active maintenance is not necessary to preserve isolation. As a minimum, annual site inspections must be conducted by the government agency responsible for long-term care of the disposal site to confirm its integrity and to determine the need, if any, for maintenance and/or monitoring. Results of the inspections for all the sites under the licensee's jurisdiction will be reported to the Commission annually within 90 days of the last site inspection in that calendar year. Any site where unusual damage or disruption is discovered during the inspection, however, will require a preliminary site inspection report to be submitted within 60 days. On the basis of a site specific evaluation, the Commission may require more frequent site inspections if necessary due to the features of a particular disposal site. In this case, a preliminary inspection report is required to be submitted within 60 days following each inspection.
V. Hazardous ConstituentsCriterion 13 - Secondary groundwater protection standards required by Criterion 5 of this appendix are concentration limits for individual hazardous constituents. The following list of constituents identifies the constituents for which standards must be set and complied with if the specific constituent is reasonably expected to be in or derived from the byproduct material and has been detected in groundwater. For purposes of this appendix, the property of gross alpha activity will be treated as if it is a hazardous constituent. Thus, when setting standards under paragraph 5B(5) of Criterion 5, the Commission will also set a limit for gross alpha activity. The Commission does not consider the following list imposed by 40 CFR part 192 to be exhaustive and may determine other constituents to be hazardous on a case-by-case basis, independent of those specified by the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency in part 192.
Hazardous Constituents Acetonitrile (Ethanenitrile) Acetophenone (Ethanone, 1-phenyl) 3-(alpha-Acetonylbenzyl)-4-hydroxycoumarin and salts (Warfarin) 2-Acetylaminofluorene (Acetamide, N-(9H-fluoren-2-yl)-) Acetyl chloride (Ethanoyl chloride) 1-Acetyl-2-thiourea (Acetamide, N-(aminothioxomethyl)-) Acrolein (2-Propenal) Acrylamide (2-Propenamide) Acrylonitrile (2-Propenenitrile) Aflatoxins Aldrin (1,2,3,4,10,10-Hexachloro-1,4,4a,5,8,8a,8b-hexahydro-endo, exo-1,4:5,8-Dimethanonaphthalene) Allyl alcohol (2-Propen-1-ol) Aluminum phosphide 4-Aminobiphenyl ([1,1′-Biphenyl]-4-amine) 6-Amino-1,1a,2,8,8a,8b-hexahydro-8-(hydroxymethyl)-8a-methoxy-5-methyl-carbamate azirino[2′,3′:3,4]pyrrolo[1,2-a]indole-4,7-dione, (ester) (Mitomycin C) (Azirino[2′3′:3,4]pyrrolo(1,2-a)indole-4,7-dione, 6-amino-8-[((amino-cabonyl)oxy)methyl]-1,1a,2,8,8a,8b-hexa-hydro-8a methoxy-5-methy-) 5-(Aminomethyl)-3-isoxazolol (3(2H)-Isoxazolone, 5-(aminomethyl)-) 4-Aminopyridine (4-Pyridinamine) Amitrole (1H-1,2,4-Triazol-3-amine) Aniline (Benzenamine) Antimony and compounds, N.O.S. 33 The abbreviation N.O.S. (not otherwise specified) signifies those members of the general class not specifically listed by name in this list.
Aramite (Sulfurous acid, 2-chloroethyl-, 2-[4-(1,1-dimethylethyl) phenoxy]-1-methylethyl ester) Arsenic and compounds, N.O.S. 3 Arsenic acid (Orthoarsenic acid) Arsenic pentoxide (Arsenic (V) oxide) Arsenic trioxide (Arsenic (III) oxide) Auramine (Benzenamine, 4,4′-carbonimidoylbis[N,N-Dimethyl-, monohydrochloride) Azaserine (L-Serine, diazoacetate (ester)) Barium and compounds, N.O.S. 3 Barium cyanide Benz[c]acridine (3,4-Benzacridine) Benz[a]anthracene (1,2-Benzanthracene) Benzene (Cyclohexatriene) Benzenearsonic acid (Arsonic acid, phenyl-) Benzene, dichloromethyl- (Benzal chloride) Benzenethiol (Thiophenol) Benzidine ([1,1′-Biphenyl]-4,4′ diamine) Benzo[b]fluoranthene (2,3-Benzofluoranthene) Benzo[j]fluoranthene (7,8-Benzofluoranthene) Benzo[a]pyrene (3,4-Benzopyrene) p-Benzoquinone (1,4-Cyclohexadienedione) Benzotrichloride (Benzene, trichloromethyl) Benzyl chloride (Benzene, (chloromethyl)-) Beryllium and compounds, N.O.S. 3 Bis(2-chloroethoxy)methane (Ethane, 1,1′-[methylenebis(oxy)]bis[2-chloro-]) Bis(2-chloroethyl) ether (Ethane, 1,1′-oxybis[2-chloro-]) N,N-Bis(2-chloroethyl)-2-naphthylamine (Chlornaphazine) Bis(2-chloroisopropyl) ether (Propane, 2,2′-oxybis[2-chloro-]) Bis(chloromethyl) ether (Methane, oxybis[chloro-]) Bis(2-ethylhexyl) phthalate (1,2-Benzenedicarboxylic acid, bis(2-ethylhexyl) ester) Bromoacetone (2-Propanone, 1-bromo-) Bromomethane (Methyl bromide) 4-Bromophenyl phenyl ether (Benzene, 1-bromo-4-phenoxy-) Brucine (Strychnidin-10-one, 2,3-dimethoxy-) 2-Butanone peroxide (Methyl ethyl ketone, peroxide) Butyl benzyl phthalate (1,2-Benzenedicarboxylic acid, butyl phenylmethyl ester) 2-sec-Butyl-4,6-dinitrophenol (DNBP) (Phenol, 2,4-dinitro-6-(1-methylpropyl)-) Cadmium and compounds, N.O.S. 3 Calcium chromate (Chromic acid, calcium salt) Calcium cyanide Carbon disulfide (Carbon bisulfide) Carbon oxyfluoride (Carbonyl fluoride) Chloral (Acetaldehyde, trichloro-) Chlorambucil (Butanoic acid, 4-[bis(2-chloroethyl)amino]benzene-) Chlordane (alpha and gamma isomers) (4,7-Methanoindan, 1,2,4,5,6,7,8,8-octachloro-3,4,7,7a-tetrahydro-) (alpha and gamma isomers) Chlorinated benzenes, N.O.S. 3 Chlorinated ethane, N.O.S. 3 Chlorinated fluorocarbons, N.O.S. 3 Chlorinated naphthalene, N.O.S. 3 Chlorinated phenol, N.O.S. 3 Chloroacetaldehyde (Acetaldehyde, chloro-) Chloroalkyl ethers, N.O.S. 3 p-Chloroaniline (Benzenamine, 4-chloro-) Chlorobenzene (Benzene, chloro-) Chlorobenzilate (Benzeneacetic acid, 4-chloro-alpha-(4-chlorophenyl)-alpha-hydroxy-,ethyl ester) p-Chloro-m-cresol (Phenol, 4-chloro-3-methyl) 1-Chloro-2,3-epoxypropane (Oxirane, 2-(chloromethyl)-) 2-Chloroethyl vinyl ether (Ethene, (2-chloroethoxy)-) Chloroform (Methane, trichloro-) Chloromethane (Methyl chloride) Chloromethyl methyl ether (Methane, chloromethoxy-) 2-Chloronaphthalene (Naphthalene, betachloro-) 2-Chlorophenol (Phenol, o-chloro-) 1-(o-Chlorophenyl)thiourea (Thiourea, (2-chlorophenyl)-) 3-Chloropropionitrile (Propanenitrile, 3-chloro-) Chromium and compounds, N.O.S. 3 Chrysene (1,2-Benzphenanthrene) Citrus red No. 2 (2-Naphthol, 1-[(2,5-dimethoxyphenyl)azo]-) Coal tars Copper cyanide Creosote (Creosote, wood) Cresols (Cresylic acid) (Phenol, methyl-) Crotonaldehyde (2-Butenal) Cyanides (soluble salts and complexes), N.O.S. 3 Cyanogen (Ethanedinitrile) Cyanogen bromide (Bromine cyanide) Cyanogen chloride (Chlorine cyanide) Cycasin (beta-D-Glucopyranoside, (methyl-ONN-azoxy)methyl-) 2-Cyclohexyl-4,6-dinitrophenol (Phenol, 2-cyclohexyl-4,6-dinitro-) Cyclophosphamide (2H-1,3,2,-Oxazaphosphorine, [bis(2-chloroethyl) amino]-tetrahydro-,2-oxide) Daunomycin (5,12-Naphthacenedione, (8S-cis)-8-acetyl-10-[(3-amino-2,3,6-trideoxy)-alpha-L-lyxo-hexopyranosyl)oxy]-7,8,9,10-tetrahydro-6,8,11-trihydroxy-1-methoxy-) DDD (Dichlorodiphenyldichloroethane) (Ethane, 1,1-dichloro-2,2-bis(p-chlorophenyl)-) DDE (Ethylene, 1,1-dichloro-2,2-bis(4-chlorophenyl)-) DDT (Dichlorodiphenyltrichloroethane) (Ethane, 1,1,1-trichloro-2,2-bis (p-chlorophenyl)-) Diallate (S-(2,3-dichloroallyl) diisopropylthiocarbamate) Dibenz[a,h]acridine (1,2,5,6-Dibenzacridine) Dibenz[a,j]acridine (1,2,7,8-Dibenzacridine) Dibenz[a,h]anthracene (1,2,5,6-Dibenzanthracene) 7H-Dibenzo[c,g]carbazole (3,4,5,6-Dibenzcarbazole) Dibenzo[a,e]pyrene (1,2,4,5-Dibenzpyrene) Dibenzo[a,h]pyrene (1,2,5,6-Dibenzpyrene) Dibenzo[a,i]pyrene (1,2,7,8-Dibenzpyrene) 1,2-Dibromo-3-chloropropane (Propane, 1,2-dibromo-3-chloro-) 1,2-Dibromoethane (Ethylene dibromide) Dibromomethane (Methylene bromide) Di-n-butyl phthalate (1,2-Benzenedicarboxylic acid, dibutyl ester) o-Dichlorobenzene (Benzene, 1,2-dichloro-) m-Dichlorobenzene (Benzene, 1,3-dichloro-) p-Dichlorobenzene (Benzene, 1,4-dichlor-) Dichlorobenzene, N.O.S. 3 (Benzene, dichloro-, N.O.S. 3) 3,3′-Dichlorobenzidine ([1,1′-Biphenyl]-4,4′-diamine, 3,3′-dichloro-) 1,4-Dichloro-2-butene (2-Butene, 1,4-dichloro-) Dichlorodifluoromethane (Methane, dichlorodifluoro-) 1,1-Dichloroethane (Ethylidene dichloride) 1,2-Dichloroethane (Ethylene dichloride) trans-1,2-Dichloroethene (1,2-Dichloroethylene) Dichloroethylene, N.O.S. 3 (Ethene, dichloro-, N.O.S. 3) 1,1-Dichloroethylene (Ethene, 1,1-dichloro-) Dichloromethane (Methylene chloride) 2,4-Dichlorophenol (Phenol, 2,4-dichloro-) 2,6-Dichlorophenol (Phenol, 2,6-dichloro-) 2,4-Dichlorophenoxyacetic acid (2,4-D), salts and esters (Acetic acid, 2,4-dichlorophenoxy-, salts and esters) Dichlorophenylarsine (Phenyl dichloroarsine) Dichloropropane, N.O.S. 3 (Propane, dichloro-, N.O.S. 3) 1,2-Dichloropropane (Propylene dichloride) Dichloropropanol, N.O.S. 3 (Propanol, dichloro-, N.O.S. 3) Dichloropropene, N.O.S. 3 (Propene, dichloro-, N.O.S. 3) 1,3-Dichloropropene (1-Propene, 1,3-dichloro-) Dieldin (1,2,3,4,10.10-hexachloro-6,7-epoxy-1,4,4a,5,6,7,8,8a-octa-hydro-endo, exo- 1,4:5,8-Dimethanonaphthalene) 1,2:3,4-Diepoxybutane (2,2′-Bioxirane) Diethylarsine (Arsine, diethyl-) N,N-Diethylhydrazine (Hydrazine, 1,2-diethyl) O,O-Diethyl S-methyl ester of phosphorodithioic acid (Phosphorodithioic acid, O,O-diethyl S-methyl ester) O,O-Diethylphosphoric acid, O-p-nitrophenyl ester (Phosphoric acid, diethyl p-nitrophenyl ester) Diethyl phthalate (1,2-Benzenedicarboxylic acid, diethyl ester) O,O-Diethyl O-2-pyrazinyl phosphorothioate (Phosphorothioic acid, O,O-diethyl O-pyrazinyl ester) Diethylstilbesterol (4,4′-Stilbenediol,alpha,alpha-diethyl, bis(dihydrogen phosphate, (E)-) Dihydrosafrole (Benzene, 1,2-methylenedioxy-4-propyl-) 3,4-Dihydroxy-alpha-(methylamino)methyl benzyl alcohol (1,2-Benzenediol, 4-[1-hydroxy-2-(methylamino)ethyl]-) Dilsopropylfluorophosphate (DFP) (Phosphorofluoridic acid, bis(1-methylethyl) ester) Dimethoate (Phosphorodithioic acid, O,O-dimethyl S-[2-(methylamino)-2-oxoethyl] ester) 3,3′-Dimethoxybenzidine ([1,1′-Biphenyl]- 4,4′-diamine, 3-3′-dimethoxy-) p-Dimethylaminoazobenzene (Benzenamine, N,N-dimethyl-4-(phenylazo)-) 7,12-Dimethylbenz[a]anthracene (1,2-Benzanthracene, 7,12-dimethyl-) 3,3′-Dimethylbenzidine ([1,1′-Biphenyl]-4,4′-diamine, 3,3′-dimethyl-) Dimethylcarbamoyl chloride (Carbamoyl chloride, dimethyl-) 1,1-Dimethylhydrazine (Hydrazine, 1,1-dimethyl-) 1,2-Dimethylhydrazine (Hydrazine, 1,2-dimethyl-) 3,3-Dimethyl-1-(methylthio)-2-butanone, O-[(methylamino) carbonyl] oxime (Thiofanox) alpha,alpha-Dimethylphenethylamine (Ethanamine, 1,1-dimethyl-2-phenyl-) 2,4-Dimethylphenol (Phenol, 2,4-dimethyl-) Dimethyl phthalate (1,2-Benzenedicarboxylic acid, dimethyl ester) Dimethyl sulfate (Sulfuric acid, dimethyl ester) Dinitrobenzene, N.O.S. 3 (Benzene, dinitro-, N.O.S. 3) 4,6-Dinitro-o-cresol and salts (Phenol, 2,4-dinitro-6-methyl-, and salts) 2,4-Dinitrophenol (Phenol, 2,4-dinitro-) 2,4-Dinitrotoluene (Benzene, 1-methyl-2,4-dinitro-) 2,6-Dinitrotoluene (Benzene, 1-methyl-2,6-dinitro-) Di-n-octyl phthalate (1,2-Benzenedicarboxylic acid, dioctyl ester) 1,4-Dioxane (1,4-Diethylene oxide) Diphenylamine (Benzenamine, N-phenyl-) 1,2-Diphenylhydrazine (Hydrazine, 1,2-diphenyl-) Di-n-propylnitrosamine (N-Nitroso-di-n-propylamine) Disulfoton (O,O-diethyl S-[2-(ethylthio)ethyl] phosphorodithioate) 2,4-Dithiobiuret (Thioimidodicarbonic diamide) Endosulfan (5-Norbornene, 2,3-dimethanol, 1,4,5,6,7,7-hexachloro-, cyclic sulfite) Endrin and metabolites (1,2,3,4,10,10-hexachloro-6,7-epoxy-1,4,4a,5,6,7,8,8a-octahydro-endo,endo-1,4:5,8-dimethanonaphthalene, and metabolites) Ethyl carbamate (Urethan) (Carbamic acid, ethyl ester) Ethyl cyanide (propanenitrile) Ethylenebisdithiocarbamic acid, salts and esters (1,2-Ethanediyl-biscarbamodithioic acid, salts and esters) Ethyleneimine (Aziridine) Ethylene oxide (Oxirane) Ethylenethiourea (2-Imidazolidinethione) Ethyl methacrylate (2-Propenoic acid, 2-methyl-, ethyl ester) Ethyl methanesulfonate (Methanesulfonic acid, ethyl ester) Fluoranthene (Benzo[j,k]fluorene) Fluorine 2-Fluoroacetamide (Acetamide, 2-fluoro-) Fluoroacetic acid, sodium salt (Acetic acid, fluoro-, sodium salt) Formaldehyde (Methylene oxide) Formic acid (Methanoic acid) Glycidylaldehyde (1-Propanol-2,3-epoxy) Halomethane, N.O.S. 3 Heptachlor (4,7-Methano-1H-indene, 1,4,5,6,7,8,8-heptachloro-3a,4,7,7a-tetrahydro-) Heptachlor epoxide (alpha, beta, and gamma isomers) (4,7-Methano-1H-indene, 1,4,5,6,7,8,8-heptachloro-2,3-epoxy-3a,4,7,7-tetrahydro-, alpha, beta, and gamma isomers) Hexachlorobenzene (Benzene, hexachloro-) Hexachlorobutadiene (1,3-Butadiene, 1,1,2,3,4,4-hexachloro-) Hexachlorocyclohexane (all isomers) (Lindane and isomers) Hexachlorocyclopentadiene (1,3-Cyclopentadiene, 1,2,3,4,5,5-hexachloro-) Hexachloroethane (Ethane, 1,1,1,2,2,2-hexachloro-) 1,2,3,4,10,10-Hexachloro-1,4,4a,5,8,8a-hexahydro-1,4:5,8-endo,endo-dimethanonaphthalene (Hexachlorohexa-hydro-endo,endo-dimethanonaphthalene) Hexachlorophene (2,2′-Methylenebis(3,4,6-trichlorophenol) Hexachloropropene (1-Propene, 1,1,2,3,3,3-hexachloro-) Hexaethyl tetraphosphate (Tetraphosphoric acid, hexaethyl ester) Hydrazine (Diamine) Hydrocyanic acid (Hydrogen cyanide) Hydrofluoric acid (Hydrogen fluoride) Hydrogen sulfide (Sulfur hydride) Hydroxydimethylarsine oxide (Cacodylic acid) Indeno (1,2,3-cd)pyrene (1,10-(1,2-phenylene)pyrene) Iodomethane (Methyl iodide) Iron dextran (Ferric dextran) Isocyanic acid, methyl ester (Methyl isocyanate) Isobutyl alcohol (1-Propanol, 2-methyl-) Isosafrole (Benzene, 1,2-methylenedioxy-4-allyl-) Kepone (Decachlorooctahydro-1,3,4-Methano-2H-cyclobuta[cd]pentalen-2-one) Lasiocarpine (2-Butenoic acid, 2-methyl-, 7-[(2,3-dihydroxy-2-(1-methoxyethyl)-3-methyl-1-oxobutoxy)methyl]-2,3,5,7a- tetrahydro-1H-pyrrolizin-1-yl ester) Lead and compounds, N.O.S. 3 Lead acetate (Acetic acid, lead salt) Lead phosphate (Phosphoric acid, lead salt) Lead subacetate (Lead, bis(acetato-0)tetrahydroxytri-) Maleic anhydride (2,5-Furandione) Maleic hydrazide (1,2-Dihydro-3,6-pyridazinedione) Malononitrile (Propanedinitrile) Melphalan (Alanine, 3-[p-bis(2-chloroethyl)amino]phenyl-,L-) Mercury fulminate (Fulminic acid, mercury salt) Mercury and compounds, N.O.S. 3 Methacrylonitrile (2-Propenenitrile, 2-methyl-) Methanethiol (Thiomethanol) Methapyrilene (Pyridine. 2-[(2-dimethylamino)ethyl]-2-thenylamino-) Metholmyl (Acetimidic acid, N-[(methylcarbamoyl)oxy]thio-, methyl ester) Methoxychlor (Ethane, 1,1,1-trichloro-2,2′-bis(p-methoxyphenyl)-) 2-Methylaziridine (1,2-Propylenimine) 3-Methylcholanthrene (Benz[j]aceanthrylene, 1,2-dihydro-3-methyl-) Methyl chlorocarbonate (Carbonochloridic acid, methyl ester) 4,4′-Methylenebis(2-chloroaniline) (Benzenamine, 4,4′-methylenebis- (2-chloro-) Methyl ethyl ketone (MEK) (2-Butanone) Methyl hydrazine (Hydrazine, methyl-) 2-Methyllactonitrile (Propanenitrile, 2-hydroxy-2-methyl-) Methyl methacrylate (2-Propenoic acid, 2-methyl-, methyl ester) Methyl methanesulfonate (Methanesulfonic acid, methyl ester) 2-Methyl-2-(methylthio)propionaldehyde-o-(methylcarbonyl) oxime (Propanal, 2-methyl-2-(methylthio)-, 0-[(methylamino)carbonyl]oxime) N-Methyl-N′-nitro-N-nitrosoguanidine (Guanidine, N-nitroso-N-methyl-N′- nitro-) Methyl parathion (0,0-dimethyl 0-(4-nitrophenyl) phosphorothioate) Methylthiouracil (4-IH-Pyrimidinone, 2,3-dihydro-6-methyl-2-thioxo-) Molybdenum and compounds, N.O.S. 3 Mustard gas (Sulfide, bis(2-chloroethyl)-) Naphthalene 1,4-Naphthoquinone (1,4-Naphthalenedione) 1-Naphthylamine (alpha-Naphthylamine) 2-Naphthylamine (beta-Naphthylamine) 1-Naphthyl-2-thiourea (Thiourea, 1-naphthalenyl-) Nickel and compounds, N.O.S. 3 Nickel carbonyl (Nickel tetracarbonyl) Nickel cyanide (Nickel (II) cyanide) Nicotine and salts (Pyridine, (S)-3-(1-methyl-2-pyrrolidinyl)-, and salts) Nitric oxide (Nitrogen (II) oxide) p-Nitroaniline (Benzenamine, 4-nitro-) Nitrobenzine (Benzene, nitro-) Nitrogen dioxide (Nitrogen (IV) oxide) Nitrogen mustard and hydrochloride salt (Ethanamine, 2-chloro-, N-(2-chloroethyl)- N-methyl-, and hydrochloride salt) Nitrogen mustard N-Oxide and hydrochloride salt (Ethanamine, 2-chloro-, N-(2-chloroethyl)-N-methyl-, and hydrochloride salt) Nitroglycerine (1,2,3-Propanetriol, trinitrate) 4-Nitrophenol (Phenol, 4-nitro-) 4-Nitroquinoline-1-oxide (Quinoline, 4-nitro-1-oxide-) Nitrosamine, N.O.S. 3 N-Nitrosodi-n-butylamine (1-Butanamine, N-butyl-N-nitroso-) N-Nitrosodiethanolamine (Ethanol, 2,2′-(nitrosoimino)bis-) N-Nitrosodiethylamine (Ethanamine, N-ethyl-N-nitroso-) N-Nitrosodimethylamine (Dimethylnitrosamine) N-Nitroso-N-ethylurea (Carbamide, N-ethyl-N-nitroso-) N-Nitrosomethylethylamine (Ethanamine, N-methyl-N-nitroso-) N-Nitroso-N-methylurea (Carbamide, N-methyl-N-nitroso-) N-Nitroso-N-methylurethane (Carbamic acid, methylnitroso-, ethyl ester) N-Nitrosomethylvinylamine (Ethenamine, N-methyl-N-nitroso-) N-Nitrosomorpholine (Morpholine, N-nitroso-) N-Nitrosonornicotine (Nornicotine, N-nitroso-) N-Nitrosopiperidine (Pyridine, hexahydro-, N-nitroso-) Nitrosopyrrolidine (Pyrrole, tetrahydro-, N-nitroso-) N-Nitrososarcosine (Sarcosine, N-nitroso-) 5-Nitro-o-toluidine (Benzenamine, 2-methyl-5-nitro-) Octamethylpyrophosphoramide (Diphosphoramide, octamethyl-) Osmium tetroxide (Osmium (VIII) oxide) 7-Oxabicyclo[2.2.1]heptane-2,3-dicarboxylic acid (Endothal) Paraldehyde (1,3,5-Trioxane, 2,4,6-trimethyl-) Parathion (Phosphorothioic acid, O,O-diethyl O-(p-nitrophenyl)ester) Pentachlorobenzene (Benzene, pentachloro-) Pentachloroethane (Ethane, pentachloro-) Pentachloronitrobenzene (PCNB) (Benzene, pentachloronitro-) Pentachlorophenol (Phenol, pentachloro-) Phenacetin (Acetamide, N-(4-ethoxyphenyl)-) Phenol (Benzene, hydroxy-) Phenylenediamine (Benzenediamine) Phenylmercury acetate (Mercury, acetatophenyl-) N-Phenylthiourea (Thiourea, phenyl-) Phosgene (Carbonyl chloride) Phosphine (Hydrogen phosphide) Phosphorodithioic acid, O,O-diethyl S-[(ethylthio)methyl] ester (Phorate) Phosphorothioic acid, O,O-dimethyl O-[p-((dimethylamino)sulfonyl)phenyl] ester (Famphur) Phthalic acid esters, N.O.S. 3 (Benzene, 1,2-dicarboxylic acid, esters, N.O.S. 3) Phthalic anhydride (1,2-Benzenedicarboxylic acid anhydride) 2-Picoline (Pyridine, 2-methyl-) Polychlorinated biphenyl, N.O.S. 3 Potassium cyanide Potassium silver cyanide (Argentate(1-), dicyano-, potassium) Pronamide (3,5-Dichloro-N-(1,1-dimethyl-2-propynyl)benzamide) 1,3-Propane sultone (1,2-Oxathiolane, 2,2-dioxide) n-Propylamine (1-Propanamine) Propylthiouracil (Undecamethylenediamine, N,N′-bis(2-chlorobenzyl-), dihydrochloride) 2-Propyn-1-ol (Propargyl alcohol) Pyridine Radium-226 and -228 Reserpine (Yohimban-16-carboxylic acid, 11,17-dimethoxy-18-[3,4,5- trimethoxybenzoyl)oxy]-, methyl ester) Resorcinol (1,3-Benzenediol) Saccharin and salts (1,2-Benzoisothiazolin-3-one, 1,1-dioxide, and salts) Safrole (Benzene, 1,2-methylenedioxy-4-allyl-) Selenious acid (Selenium dioxide) Selenium and compounds, N.O.S. 3 Selenium sulfide (Sulfur selenide) Selenourea (Carbamimidoselenoic acid) Silver and compounds, N.O.S. 3 Silver cyanide Sodium cyanide Streptozotocin (D-Glucopyranose, 2-deoxy-2-(3-methyl-3-nitrosoureido)-) Strontium sulfide Strychnine and salts (Strychnidin-10-one, and salts) 1,2,4,5-Tetrachlorobenzene (Benzene, 1,2,4,5-tetrachloro-) 2,3,7,8-Tetrachlorodibenzo-p-dioxin (TCDD) (Dibenzo-p-dioxin, 2,3,7,8-tetrachloro-) Tetrachloroethane, N.O.S. 3 (Ethane, tetrachloro-, N.O.S. 3) 1,1,1,2-Tetrachlorethane (Ethane, 1,1,1,2-tetrachloro-) 1,1,2,2-Tetrachlorethane (Ethane, 1,1,2,2-tetrachloro-) Tetrachloroethane (Ethene, 1,1,2,2-tetrachloro-) Tetrachloromethane (Carbon tetrachloride) 2,3,4,6,-Tetrachlorophenol (Phenol, 2,3,4,6-tetrachloro-) Tetraethyldithiopyrophosphate (Dithiopyrophosphoric acid, tetraethyl-ester) Tetraethyl lead (Plumbane, tetraethyl-) Tetraethylpyrophosphate (Pyrophosphoric acide, tetraethyl ester) Tetranitromethane (Methane, tetranitro-) Thallium and compounds, N.O.S. 3 Thallic oxide (Thallium (III) oxide) Thallium (I) acetate (Acetic acid, thallium (I) salt) Thallium (I) carbonate (Carbonic acid, dithallium (I) salt) Thallium (I) chloride Thallium (I) nitrate (Nitric acid, thallium (I) salt) Thallium selenite Thallium (I) sulfate (Sulfuric acid, thallium (I) salt) Thioacetamide (Ethanethioamide) Thiosemicarbazide (Hydrazinecarbothioamide) Thiourea (Carbamide thio-) Thiuram (Bis(dimethylthiocarbamoyl) disulfide) Thorium and compounds, N.O.S., 3 when producing thorium byproduct material Toluene (Benzene, methyl-) Toluenediamine (Diaminotoluene) o-Toluidine hydrochloride (Benzenamine, 2-methyl-, hydrochloride) Tolylene diisocyanate (Benzene, l,3-diisocyanatomethyl-) Toxaphene (Camphene, octachloro-) Tribromomethane (Bromoform) 1,2,4-Trichlorobenzene (Benzene, 1,2,4-trichloro-) 1,1,1-Trichloroethane (Methyl chloroform) 1,1,2-Trichloroethane (Ethane, 1,1,2-trichloro-) Trichloroethene (Trichloroethylene) Trichloromethanethiol (Methanethiol, trichloro-) Trichloromonofluoromethane (Methane, trichlorofluoro-) 2,4,5-Trichlorophenol (Phenol, 2,4,5-trichloro-) 2,4,6-Trichlorophenol (Phenol, 2,4,6-trichloro-) 2,4,5-Trichlorophenoxyacetic acid (2,4,5-T) (Acetic acid, 2,4,5-trichlorophenoxy-) 2,4,5-Trichlorophenoxypropionic acid (2,4,5-TP) (Silvex) (Propionoic acid, 2-(2,4,5-trichlorophenoxy)-) Trichloropropane, N.O.S. 3 (Propane, trichloro-, N.O.S. 3) 1,2,3-Trichloropropane (Propane, 1,2,3-trichloro-) O,O,O-Triethyl phosphorothioate (Phosphorothioic acid, O,O,O-triethyl ester) sym-Trinitrobenzene (Benzene, 1,3,5-trinitro-) Tris(1-azridinyl) phosphine sulfide (Phosphine sulfide, tris(1-aziridinyl-) Tris(2,3-dibromopropyl) phosphate (1-Propanol, 2,3-dibromo-, phosphate) Trypan blue (2,7-Naphthalenedisulfonic acid, 3,3′-[(3,3′-dimethyl (1,1′-biphenyl)- 4,4′-diyl)bis(azo)]bis(5-amino-4-hydroxy-, tetrasodium salt) Uracil mustard (Uracil 5-[bis(2-chloroethyl)amino]-) Uranium and compounds, N.O.S. 3 Vanadic acid, ammonium salt (ammonium vanadate) Vanadium pentoxide (Vanadium (V) oxide) Vinyl chloride (Ethene, chloro-) Zinc cyanide Zinc phosphide [50 FR 41862, Oct. 16, 1985, as amended at 52 FR 31611, Aug. 21, 1987; 52 FR 43562, Nov. 13, 1987; 53 FR 19248, May 27, 1988; 55 FR 45600, Oct. 30, 1990; 56 FR 23473, May 21, 1991; 58 FR 67661, Dec. 22, 1993; 59 FR 28229, June 1, 1994; 64 FR 17510, Apr. 12, 1999; 77 FR 35570, June 17, 2012; 81 FR 86909, Dec. 2, 2016]